57. What are Lysosomes, Centrosomes & Ribosomes example of?

1. Stem Cells
2. Organelles within a cell
3. Sensory receptors of dermis
4. exocrine glands

58. What does simple columnar epithelial tissue refer to? Tissue with

1. A single layer of cells longer than they are wide.
2. A single layer of cells whose length , breadth and depth are about the same size
3. several layer of cells, all of the same size
4. several layers of cells but without a basement membrane.

59. Which of the following is NOT an example of connective tissue?

1. Blood
2. Bone
3. Tendon
4. epidermis

60. What is the function of phospholipids in the plasma membrane?

1. to maintain the intracellular fluid at a similar composition to that of the interstitial fluid.
2. to form channels to selectively allow passage of small molecules.
3. to act as receptors for signalling chemicals.
4. to present a barrier to the passage of water-soluble molecules

61. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue?

1. Plasma Cells
2. Leucocytes
3. Keratinocytes
4. Chondroblasts

62. Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma membrane of a cell?

1. integral proteins
2. glycoprotein
3. plasma proteins
4. Peripheral proteins

63. A Major Role for Mitochondria is to

1. Transcribe the information in DNA ( deoxyribonucleic acid)
2. produces ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate)
3. synthesize proteins form amino acids
4. Use enzymes to lyse molecules

64. Choose the tissue below that is one of the four primary types of body tissue.

1. Epidermal Tissue
2. Epithelial tissue
3. Interstitial tissue
4. Osseous tissue

65. What are the primary types of tissue in the body?

1. Muscle, nervous, connective and epithelial
2. Muscle, nervous, connective, osseous and epithelial
3. Muscle, nervous, connective, osseous, blood and epithelial
4. Muscle, nervous, connective, glandular and epithelial

66. What is the name of the membrane that surrounds the lungs?

1. Visceral Peritonuem
2. Parietal Peritonuem
3. Visceral Pleura
4. Dura Mater

67. What is a role performed by mitochondria?

1. contain enzymes capable of digesting molecules
2. produce ATP
3. synthesise proteins
4. synthesise fatty acids , phospholipids & Cholesterol.

68. Which of the following is NOT found in the plasma membrane?

1. proteins
2. Cholesterol
3. endoplasmic reticulum
4. Phospolipids

69. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue?

1. Mast Cells
2. Adipocytes
3. Chondroblasts
4. Keratinocytes

70.Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma membrane of a cell?

1. Phospolipids
2. glycoprotein
3. Chromatin
4. Cholesterol

71. A major role for mitochondria is to

1. synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids & steroids
2. deliver lipids and proteins to plasma membrane for secretion
3. synthesise proteins from amino acids
4. produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

72. Choose the tissue below that is NOT one of the four primary types of body tissue.

1. connective tissue
2. muscular tissue
3. nervous tissue
4. Osseous tissue

73. What is the purpose of mitochondria?

1. to store the nucleolus and Chromatin
2. to produce adenosine triphosphate
3. to support and shape the cell.
4. They produce enzymes to break down molecules

74. The plasma membrane of a cell contains molecules that have a hydrophobic end and a hydrophilic end What are they called?

1. Phospolipids
2. Cholesterol
3. integral proteins
4. glycoprotein

75. Adipocytes are found in which type of tissue?

1. Muscle tissue
2. epithelial tissue
3. nervous tissue
4. connective tissue

76. What is the role of mitochondria? To:

1. function in cell division
2. synthesise proteins
3. form part of the plasma membrane
4. synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids and steroids.

77. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue?

1. Mast Cells
2. Adipocytes
3. Chondroblasts
4. Melanocytes

78. What is the difference between “loose” connective tissue (CT) and “dense” connective tissue?

1. Fibres occupy most of the volume in dense CT
2. Dense CT includes cartilage, loose CT does not.
3. Loose CT has a good blood supply while dense CT does not
4. Looose CT has no fibers (and Dense CT does).

79. Facilitated diffusion refers to the process of

1. movement along a concentration gradient assisted by protein carrier molecules.
2. movement of ions and molecules along a concentration gradient.
3. transport of molecules and ions against their concentration gradient.
4. water movement through a semi-permeable membrane

80. What do fi broblasts, chondroblasts, osteoblasts and haemocytoblasts have in common?

1. They are all types of white blood cell
2. they are all macrophages
3. They are all immature cells
4. thery are all types of epithelial tissue

81. Which is NOT true of connective tissue (CT)?

1. the cells are closely packed
2. the tissue contains proteins fibers & ground substance
3. types includes loose CT , dense CT & Liquid CT
4. CT contains white blood cells.

82. Active transport across the plasma membrane may be described by which statement?

1. active transport requires energy from ATP.
2. active transport is also known as endocytosis
3. active transport moves molecules along their concentration gradient
4. active transport is the movement of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane.

83. Which of the following cell types denotes an immature cell?

1. Macrophages
2. Monocytes
3. Osteoblasts
4. Ribosomes

84. Choose the membrane that is NOT a serous membrane.

1. Pleura
2. Peritonuem
3. Pericardium
4. Lamina propria

85. Which organelle is the site of ATP production?

1. The Nucleus
2. endoplasmic reticulum
3. Mitochondria
4. Golgi Apparatus

86. Which of the following is ONE major function of epithelial cells?

1. movement
2. secretion
3. support of other cell types
4. Transmit electric signals

87. What are the major types of tissue in the body?

1. nervous, muscle, epithelial, connective.
2. squamous, cuboidal, columnar, transitional.
3. osteocytes, chondrocytes, leucocytes, adipocytes.
4. protein, adipose, cartilage, osseous.

88. Which of the following is NOT one of the organelles within a cell?

1. desmosome
2. endoplasmic reticulum
3. mitochondrion
4. golgi apparatus

89. Which list contains the main body tissue types?

1. glandular, connective, osseous, nervous
2. epithelial, nervous, connective, muscle.
3. endothelial, connective, muscle, cartilaginous
4. epithelial, cartilaginous, muscle, glandular

90. The process of “diffusion” through a membrane may be described by which of the following?

1. . the movement of ions and molecules away from regions where they are in high concentration towards regions where they are in lower concentration.
2. . the use of energy from ATP to move ions and small molecules into regions where they are in lower concentration.
3. the plasma membrane engulfs the substance and moves it through the membrane
4. the use of energy from ATP to move water molecules against their concentration gradient.

91. The process of “active transport” through a membrane may be described by which of the following?

1. the movement of ions and small molecules away from regions where they are in high concentration
2. the use of energy from ATP to move ions and small molecules into regions where they are in lower concentration.
3. the plasma membrane engulfs the substance and moves it through the membrane.
4. the use of energy from ATP to move ions and small molecules against their concentration gradient.

92. Which of the following is the smallest living structural unit of the body?

1. atom
2. molecules
3. Organelle
4. cells

93. Which of the following enables ions such as sodium to cross a plasma membrane?

1. phospholipids bilayer
2. Peripheral proteins
3. integral proteins
4. desmosomes

94. Cell membranes can maintain a difference in electrical charge between the interior of the cell and the extracellular fl uid. What is this charge difference called?

1. excitability
2. the membrane potential
3. the action potential
4. the Sodium-Potassium pump

95. The resting membrane potential of a cell is the consequence of which of the following concentrations of ions?

1. High K + and Cl − outside the cell and high Na + and large anions inside the cell.
2. High K + and Na + outside the cell and high Cl − and large anions inside the cell
3. High Cl − and Na + outside the cell and high K + and large cations inside the cell.
4. D. High Ca 2+ and Na + outside the cell and high K + and large cations inside the cell.

96. Membrane proteins perform the following functions EXCEPT one. Which One?

1. form the glycocalyx
2. act as receptor proteins
3. form pores to allow the passage of small solutes
4. behaves as enzymes

97. Facilitated diffusion differs from active transport because facilitated diffusion:

1. requires energy from ATP
2. moves molecules from where thay are in lower concentration to higher concentration
3. Moves molecules from ehre they are in higher concentration to lower concentration
4. involves ions & molecules that passes through membrane channels

98. Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue?

1. blood
2. Mesothelium
3. fat
4. tendons

99. The cells that are found in tendons are called:

1. osteocytes
2. adipocytes
3. haemocytoblasts
4. fibroblats

100. Which one of the following terms best describes the structure of the cell membrane:

1. fluid mosaic model
2. static mosaic model
3. quaternary structure
4. multilayered structure

101. Which one of the following terms best describes a phospholipid. It consists of a:

1. polar head and polar tail
2. non-polar head and polar tail
3. polar head and non-polar tail
4. non-polar head and a non-polar tail

102. One of the functions of integral proteins in cell membranes is to:

1. maintain the rigid structure of cell
2. support mechanically the phospholipid
3. interact with the cytoplasm
4. form channels for transport functions

103. Which one of the following best describes what a cell membrane consists of?

1. lipids, proteins , ribosomes
2. lipids, cholesterol, proteins
3. cholesterol , proteins , cytoplasm
4. lipids , proteins , cytoplasm
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Skeletal System & Joints

1. Which of the following is NOT a bone of the axial skeleton?

1. Deltoid
2. ethmoid
3. sphenoid
4. Hyoid

2. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

1. Haemopoiesis
2. Haemostasis
3. peristalsis
4. glycogenolysis

3. In which of the following bone structures do osteocytes live?

1. osteons
2. canaliculi
3. lacunae
4. lamellae

4. Which bone is most superior?

1. manubrium
2. Occipital bone
3. Cervical vertebra
4. patella

5. What is a "trochancter"?

1. part of a femur
2. a feature of the pelvis
3. a projection that forms part of an articulation
4. a groove in which lies a tendon

6. One of the functions of bones is to make red blood cells. What is this process known as?

1. Haemolysis
2. Haemopoiesis
3. Haematuria
4. Haemostasis

7.Where do osteocytes resides?

1. In lamellae
2. In Endosteum
3. In Trabeculae
4. In lacunae

8. Which of the following describes the movements known as pronation and supination?

1. The flexing of the arm with respect to the forearm around the elbow
2. The swivelling of the foot to the medial and lateral directions.
3. The twisting of the wrist while the elbow is held motionless.
4. The rotation at the shoulder that causes the arm to describe a cone shape.

9.Which of the following is NOT a “long” bone?

1. The humerus
2. The Tibia
3. A Carpal
4. a metacarpal

10.Which one of the following is a bone that is embedded within a tendon?

1. Sphenoid
2. Hyoid
3. Ethmoid
4. Sesamoid

11. In which one of the following structures do osteocytes reside?

1. Haversian canals
2. Lacunae
3. Trabeculae
4. Endosteum

12.Which bone of the head has a synovial joint?

1. The Sphenoid
2. The maxilla
3. The Mandible
4. The Hyoid

13.What are the bones of the fingers known as?

1. Short bones
2. Metacarpals
3. Carpals
4. Phalanges

14.Which of the following comprise seven bones?

1. Cervical vertebrae
2. Carpals
3. Cranial Bones
4. Lumbar vertebrae

15.Which term below refers to a depression in a bone?

1. Tuberosity
2. Fossa
3. Tubercle
4. Condyle

16.What body part is able to perform pronation and supination?

1. The Forearm
2. The Foot
3. the thigh
4. The Wrist

17.Where are blood vessels in compact bone found?

1. in the canaliculi
2. in the periosteum
3. in thw lacunae
4. in the central canal

18.Which of the following is NOT a depression or cavity on a bone?

1. Tuberosity
2. Facet
3. Meatus
4. Sinus

19.One of the following lists contains only bones in the appendicular skeleton. Which one?

1. patella, ethmoid, femur, coccyx, tibia
2. clavicle, fibula, metatarsal, phalange, radius
3. humerus, scapula, occipital, metacarpal, sternum
4. ulna, radius, phalange, mandible, coxal

20. A synovial joint is also known as one of the following, which one

1. synarthrosis
2. immovable joint
3. slightly moveable joint
4. freely moveable joint

21. What is contained within the medullary canal of a long bone?

1. Trabeculae
2. lamella
3. marrow
4. osteoblasts & osteoclasts

22.Where in the skeleton is the scapula located?

1. in the axial skeleton
2. in the appendicular skeleton
3. in the carpal region
4. in the shoulder girdle

23.Which of the following bone markings forms part of an articulation?

1. the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus
2. the lateral condyle of the femur
3. the greater trochanter of the femur
4. the greater tubercule of the humerus

24.Where is the epiphyseal plate of a long bone located?

1. in the diaphysis
2. between the diaphysis and the epiphysis
3. in the epiphysis
4. in the medullary canal

25.In which structure are osteoclasts and osteoblasts found?

1. in the periosteum
2. in the Haversian canals
3. in the lacunae of osteons
4. in the trabeculae of osteons

26.Which of the following is a NOT a projection from a bone surface?

1. trochancter
2. tubercule
3. trabeculum
4. tuberosity

27.Which of the listed bones is superior to the rest?

1. manubrium
2. xiphoid process
3. coccyx
4. femur

28.Choose the correct sentence. Compact bone contains

1. lamellae and osteocytes but no osteons.
2. trabeculae, canaliculi and osteons.
3. haversian systems and canaliculi but no osteons.
4. osteons and lamellae but no trabeculae.

29.. Which of the following bone markings is NOT a projection for muscle attachment?

1. Fossa
2. tuberosity
3. tubercule
4. trochancter

30.Which of the list below is a cell that reabsorbs bone?

1. osteon
2. osteoblasts
3. osteocytes
4. osteoclasts

31.The formula for the inorganic salts in bone is

1. NH6 C3 COOH
2. C6 H12 O6
3. Ca 10 (PO 4) 6 OH 2
4. CH3 (CH2) 7 CH=CH(CH2)7 COOH

32.Freely moveable joints are also known a

1. fibrous joints
2. cartilaginous joints
3. amphirathroses
4. synovial joints

33.Which of the following is a projection from a bone surface?

1. fossa
2. fissure
3. foramen
4. Facet

34. Which of the listed bones is the most inferior?

1. ethmoid
2. sphenoid
3. femoid
4. Hyoid

35.Choose the correct sentence. Cancellous bone contains

1. lamellae and osteocytes but no Trabeculae
2. trabeculae, canaliculi and osteons.
3. haversian systems and canaliculi but no osteons
4. trabeculae and lamellae but no osteons.

36.Which of the following bones is part of the cranium?

1. occipital
2. mandible
3. Hyoid
4. carpal

37.The appendicular skeleton includes all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one?

1. the pectoral girdle
2. the thoracic cage
3. the phalanges
4. the lower limbs

38.What is the name given to the central tunnel of an osteon that contains blood vessels?

1. canaliculus
2. Endosteum
3. haversian canal
4. medullary canal

39.Which of the following is an example of a synovial joint? The joint between the:

1. tibia & fibula
2. sternum & rib number 1
3. thoracic vertebrae 4 & 5
4. Proximal ends of the radius and ulna

40.Which list contains the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles?

1. coxal , scapulae , manubrium , ilium
2. clavicle , Cervical , coccyx , innominate
3. clavicle , scapulae , coxal
4. clavicle , scapulae , sacrum , coxal

41.Synovial joints have all of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one?

1. are surrounded by an articular capsule.
2. have synovial fluid filling the space between articulating bones.
3. have synovial membrane covering the articulating bone surfaces.
4. are supported by reinforcing ligaments.

42.The manubrium and the xiphoid process are located on which part of the skeleton?

1. the lower jaw
2. the sternum
3. the pelvis
4. the hand

43. Carpals refers to

1. the points of attachment of ribs to vertebrae
2. bones of the wrist
3. bones that are embedded within a tendon
4. the thumb

44.Haemopoiesis refers to

1. blood cell formation in bone marrow
2. the process of blood clotting
3. the crenation of red blood cells in a hypotonic solution
4. an excessively large proportion of red blood cells to plasma

45.Articulating bones are joined by

1. aponeuroses
2. tendons
3. fasciculi
4. ligaments

46.On which bone is the greater trochanter found?

1. pelvic
2. femur
3. radius
4. humerus

47.What does “articulation” refer to?

1. the joining of a ligament to a bone.
2. the contact made between a tendon and a bone
3. the contact between two bones
4. the connection between a muscle and a bone

48.To which bones does the word phalanges apply? Those in the

1. fingers and toes
2. wrist and ankle
3. ankle and foot
4. fingers and hand

49.The axial skeleton groups together which sets of bones?

1. the arms and hands, the legs and feet, shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle.
2. the head, shoulder girdle, arms and hands.
3. the thoracic cage, vertebral column, shoulder girdle, the pelvic girdle, the skull and facial bones.
4. bones of the skull and face, thoracic cage and vertebral column.

50.How do synovial joints differ from the other types of bone articulation?

1. they have a joint cavity.
2. the bones are joined by fibrous tissue.
3. the articulating bones are joined by cartilage.
4. the articulating bone surfaces are covered by tendons.

51.What are the cells that are found in the lacunae of compact bone called?

1. osteocytes
2. osteons
3. osteoblasts
4. osteoclasts

52.The appendicular skeleton groups together which sets of bones?

1. the arms and hands, the legs and feet, shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle.
2. the head, shoulder girdle, arms and hands
3. the thoracic cage, vertebral column, shoulder girdle, the pelvic girdle, the skull and facial bones
4. bones of the skull and face, thoracic cage and vertebral column.

53.Synovial joints differ from the other types of joint between bones in the body because:

1. they are immovable joints.
2. they are slightly moveable
3. the bones are joined by cartilage.
4. the ends of the articulating bones are covered by hyaline cartilage

54.What does the term “haversian canal” refer to in bone?

1. the larger examples of foramina.
2. a groove that receives a muscle’s tendon
3. the centre of an osteon that contains blood capillaries.
4. the space within a long bone that contains marrow.

55. What is the structure that attaches one bone to another?

1. ligaments
2. cartilage
3. tendon
4. diaphysis

56. Which of the following describes what an “epiphysis” is?

1. The shaft of a long bone
2. the line that separates the shaft from the end of a long bone.
3. The Membrane that surrounds a bone.
4. The End of a long bone.

57. To what does the term “osteon” refer in bone?

1. the bone cells (osteocytes) in lacunae
2. a small rounded projection on a bone.
3. concentric cylinders of calcified bone matrix.
4. the membrane covering the outside of a bone.

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Blood

1.To which of the following would the term “white cell” NOT be applied?

1. erythrocytes
2. leucocytes
3. lymphocytes
4. monocytes

2. In the haemostasis process, what forms as a result of the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways?

1. fibrin
2. thrombin
3. a platelets plug
4. prothrombinase

3. The blood group known as the ABO system is based on the presence of what proteins on blood cells?

1. antibodies
2. antigens
3. agglutinins
4. immunoglobulins

4. What is found in blood serum that is also in blood plasma?

1. blood cells
2. platelets
3. plasma proteins
4. clotting factors

5. What is the term “formed elements” used to mean in a description of blood?

1. white blood cells , red blood cells & platelets
2. blood plasma
3. blood serum
4. the clotting factors in Blood

6. What is the SECOND step in the three phases of haemostasis listed below?

1. The Vascular phase
2. The intrinsic pathway
3. the extrinsic pathway
4. the platelets phase

7. What type of blood may a patient with blood type “B+” be infused with? Any blood that is

1. positive for rhesus antigen D
2. negative for rhesus antigen D
3. negative for antigen B
4. negative for antigen A

8. What is the first process that occurs after a blood vessel is damaged?

1. coagulation
2. platelets plug formation
3. vasoconstriction
4. Haemolysis

9. Which blood cells are involved in protecting the body from pathogens and foreign cells?

1. erthrocytes
2. leucocytes
3. platelets
4. haemoglobin

10. Which individuals can receive any type of blood and are considered universal recipients?

1. A+
2. O-
3. AB+
4. B-

11. Which is the most abundant plasma protein?

1. alpha- and beta- globulin
2. albumin
3. mitochondria
4. haemoglobin

12. Which characteristic of blood refers to the concentration of solutes?

1. salinty
2. pH
3. osmolality
4. viscosity

13. Which type of white blood cell is responsible for engulfing pathogens during phagocytosis?

1. thrombocyte
2. neutrophil
3. erythrocyte
4. basophil

14. What does “Rhesus positive” refer to?

1. The presence of antigen D on the surface of red blood cells
2. The final factor involved in blood clotting
3. The presence of the rhesus antibody/agglutinin in the blood
4. A deficiency of Factor VIII that results in haemophilia

15. What are red blood cells primarily composed of?

1. alpha- and beta- globulins
2. albumin
3. mitochondria
4. haemoglobin

16. Which is the LEAST common type of white blood cell?

1. lymphocyte
2. basophil
3. thrombocyte
4. neutrophil

17. In the process of haemostasis, which phase involves the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?

1. the platelets phase
2. the clotlysis phase
3. the Vascular phase
4. the coagulation phase

18. In haemostasis, which molecule polymerises to become the insoluble blood clot?

1. factor X
2. thrombin
3. fibrin
4. plasmin

19. Which enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin?

1. Serotonin
2. thrombin
3. renin
4. secretin

20. Which of the following is NOT a macrophage?

1. Kupffer cell
2. Monocyte
3. Dendrocyte
4. megakaryocyte

21. What can be said about a person who has the “A” antigen on their red blood cells?

1. their blood contains anti-B agglutinins
2. their blood contains anti-A agglutinins
3. their blood contains anti-A & anti-B agglutinins
4. their blood contains neither anti-A nor anti-B agglutinins

22.Which one of the following is NOT a plasma protein?

1. keratin
2. albumin
3. ferritin
4. globulin

23.What substance is produced by the first step in the blood clotting (coagulation) process?

1. thrombin
2. prothrombin
3. factor X
4. prothrombinase

24.Which statement about neutrophils is correct?

1. they have no nucleus
2. they contain haemoglobin
3. they function as a body defence mechanism
4. eosinophils are one type of neutrophil

25.What are red blood cells also known as?

1. erthrocytes
2. thrombocytes
3. monocytes
4. eosinophils

26.In blood clotting, what activates “factor X”

1. prothrombinase
2. thrombin
3. the entrinsic pathway
4. tissue plasminogen activator

27.A person’s blood group is determined by:

1. the agglutinogens circulating in their plasma
2. the antigens on the surface of their red blood cells
3. the antibodies on the surface of their red blood cells
4. the agglutinins circulating in their plasma

28.If a blood sample is taken for DNA testing, which of the following would be examined?

1. leucocytes
2. erythrocytes
3. thrombocytes
4. plasma protiens

29. What is the major task of red blood cells?

1. to transport Carbon Dioxide
2. to ensure haemostasis
3. to provide immunity
4. to transport oxygen

30.Careful blood matching is performed prior to transfusing blood in order to avoid which scenario?

1. newborn haemoltic disease
2. the recipient’s antigens attacking the red blood cells in the transfusion
3. the recipient’s antibodies attacking the red blood cells in the transfusion
4. the antigens on the recipient’s red blood cells reacting with the antibodies in the transfused blood

31.Which cell in the list below is the MOST common white blood cell?

1. basophils
2. lymphocytes
3. monocytes
4. neutrophils

32.What substance is the product of the second step in the blood clotting process?

1. thrombin
2. prothrombin
3. prothrombin activator
4. fibrin

33.A person whose blood group is “B positive” has which of the following?

1. the rhesus D antigen and the B antigen on their rbc, and the anti-A agglutinin.
2. the rhesus D antigen and the B antigen on their rbc, and the anti-B agglutinin.
3. the rhesus D antigen and the A antigen on their rbc, and the anti-B agglutinin
4. no rhesus D antigen and the B antigen on their rbc, and the anti-A agglutinin

34.The role of platelets in blood clotting includes all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one?

1. to form a plug in the hole of the damaged blood vesse
2. to convert prothrombin to thrombin
3. to release chemicals to attract other platelets
4. to adhere to exposed collagen fibres in damaged blood vessels

35.If someone’s ABO blood group is “type A”, this means that

1. they have the type A on their red blood cells
2. their blood contains anti-A agglutinins
3. they can receive blood from a type B donor
4. they may donate blood to a type B recipient

36.Which statement below about vitamin K is true?

1. It is water-soluble
2. It is essential for prothrombin production by the liver.
3. It is part of the “extrinsic pathway” of formation of prothrombin activator.
4. It destroys fibrin so allowing a clot to gradually dissolve.

37.What is the function of the plasma proteins in blood?

1. to transport oxygen
2. to regulate electrocyte balance
3. to exert osmotic pressure and so help maintain blood volume
4. to function as a non-specific body defence mechanism.

38.The term “formed elements” used in relation to the blood include which of the following?

1. fibrinogen
2. white blood cells
3. electrolytes
4. plasma proteins

39.Which blood cell fits the following description: multi-lobed nucleus, inconspicuous cytoplasmic granules, most common type of blood cell except for red blood cells?

1. neutrophil
2. eosinophil
3. basophil
4. lymphocyte

40.What constitutes blood plasma?

1. whole blood without the formed elements
2. blood without the red blood cells.
3. whole blood without blood cells and clotting factors
4. blood minus blood cells and proteins

41.Which of the following statements about a person with blood group “A” is true? They have the:

1. A antigen on their red blood cells.
2. anti-A antibodies in their plasma.
3. anti-A agglutinogen on their red blood cells.
4. A antibody on their red blood cells.

42.Which of the following statements concerning intracellular and extracellular fluids is FALSE?

1. The concentration of sodium is higher in extracellular fluid than in intracellular fluid.
2. The concentration of potassium is lower in extracellular fluid than in intracellular fluid
3. . Blood plasma is an example of intracellular fluid.
4. The volume of intracellular fluid is greater than that of extracellular fluid.

43.Which of the following is not a type of white blood cell?

1. leucocytes
2. eosinophils
3. erthrocytes
4. neutrophils

44.Which of the following formed elements of the blood is important in the formation of clots?

1. erthrocytes
2. lymphocytes
3. monocytes
4. thrombocytes

45.With which blood types can a person with blood type B be safely transfused?

1. A or AB
2. B or O
3. A or O
4. B or AB

46.Leucocytes may be correctly described as what?

1. cells with nuclei that do not contain haemoglobin.
2. cells without nuclei, that contain haemoglobin.
3. white blood cells with granules in their cytoplasm.
4. neutrophilic.

47.What are lymphocytes? Blood cells that:

1. mature and proliferate in the bone marrow.
2. contain haemoglobin
3. are involved in the body’s immune response
4. mature into macrophages.

48.Which of the following statements about platelets is INCORRECT? They:

1. adhere to collagen fibres of damaged tissue
2. release phospholipids which combine with “clotting factors” to produce prothrombin activator.
3. are cell fragments derived from megakayoblasts
4. are part of the “extrinsic pathway” for the formation of prothrombin activator

49.Finish the sentence correctly. Plasma proteins:

1. help maintain blood volume due to colloid osmotic pressure.
2. are regarded as formed elements of the blood.
3. are low molecular weight proteins.
4. are part of the blood serum.

50.. The colloid osmotic pressure of blood is due to which of the following?

1. proteins in the blood
2. proteins in the interstitial fluid
3. sodium and chloride ions dissolved in blood
4. the water component of the blood

51.Which one of the following terms refers to an abnormally low number of white blood cells?

1. thrombocytosis
2. haemostasis
3. leukopenia
4. cytokinesis

52.Which of the following three proteins are known as “plasma proteins”?

1. albumin, globulin, haemoglobin
2. insulin, glucagon, haemoglobin
3. fibrin, globulin, albumin
4. albumin, fibrinogen, globulin

53. Which are the two most common types of white blood cells?

1. neutrophils and lymphocytes
2. erythrocytes and neutrophils
3. neutrophils and eosinophils
4. monocytes and lymphocytes

54.Blood plasma contains “plasma proteins”. Which of the following lists the plasma proteins?

1. insulin, kaolin, bilirubin
2. cholesterol, urea, glucagon
3. Na+, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+
4. albumins, fibrinogen, globulins

55.What causes the blood’s osmotic pressure to be greater than the osmotic pressure of the surrounding interstitial fluid that is outside of the capillaries?

1. there is a higher concentration of sodium and chloride ions in the blood than the interstitial fluid
2. there is a higher concentration of water in the blood than in the interstitial fluid.
3. the plasma proteins in blood.
4. the hydrostatic pressure produced by the heart’s contractions

56.What does the term “neutrophil” refer to?

1. An affinity for neutrons
2. An abnormally low number of Cell
3. A type of white blood Cell
4. An immature cell that will become a neurtocyte.

57.One of the following cells does NOT occur in blood. Which one?

1. erthrocytes
2. basophils
3. leucocytes
4. osteocytes

58.What would a person with type A blood also have?

1. antibody A
2. angtigen A
3. agglutinin A
4. agglutinogen B

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Cardiovascular System

1. Blood flow through the heart follows which of the sequences listed below?

1. from left atrium, then mitral valve, right ventricle, aorta, left ventricle
2. from right atrium, then mitral valve, right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left ventricle.
3. from pulmonary trunk, then tricuspid valve, left atrium, aortic valve, aorta
4. from vena cava, then right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left ventricle, aorta.

2. What feature does cardiac muscle possess that is missing in skeletal muscle?

1. striations
2. multiple nuclei
3. voluntary control
4. intercalated discs

3. What is the name of the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle?

1. mitral valve
2. tricuspid valve
3. semi-lunar valve
4. aortic valve

4. What is meant by a diastolic blood pressure of 100mm Hg?

1. the maximum pressure at the start of the aorta during ventricular contraction.
2. the minimum pressure at the start of the aorta before the start of a ventricular contraction.
3. the maximum pressure at the start of the aorta and pulmonary trunk during ventricular contraction.
4. The minimum blood pressure measured when resting.

5. What is the main function of mitral valve?

1. to increase the pressure inside the left atrium during systole
2. to prevent a drop in pressure in the aorta during diastole
3. to prevent backflow from left ventricle to left atrium during systole
4. to add additional blood from left atrium to left ventricle during atrial systole

6.. What will cause the sinoatrial (SA) node to depolarize more frequently?

1. Acetylcholine
2. Norepinephrine
3. Parasympathetic stimulation
4. Vagus nerve

7.How are cardiac cells mechanically attached to each other? By their:

1. mitochondria
2. intercalated discs
3. gap junctions
4. sacrolemma

8. Starting at the APEX of the heart and moving superiorly, what is the correct order in which you would encounter the four anatomical structures below?

1. valves, chordae tendonae, papillary muscle, ventricle
2. ventricle, papillary muscle, chordae tendonae, valves
3. papillary muscle, chordae tendonae, ventricle, valves
4. chordae tendonae, valves, ventricle, papillary muscle

9. . Which period of the heart cycle is completely occupied by the ventricles relaxing?

1. atrial systole
2. atrial diastole
3. ventricular systole
4. ventricular diastole

10. Through which valve does blood flow when it moves from the right atrium into the right ventricle?

1. tricuspid valve
2. the mitral valve
3. the pulmonary valve
4. the bicuspid valve

11. How is the fibrous pericardium attached to the surrounding structures?

1. aterally to the pleural surfaces of the lungs.
2. posteriorly to the sternum.
3. anteriorly to trachea, main-stem bronchi and oesophagus.
4. inferiorly to the clavicles.

12. A drug, such as cocaine, which stimulates the heart but does directly inhibit the heart’s ability to relax, would be considered a:

1. Sympatholytic
2. Sympathomimetic
3. Parasympathetic
4. Parasympathomimetic

13. Why is the myocardium of the right ventricle (RV) thinner than that of the left ventricle (LV)?

1. the RV pumps into the pulmonary circuit which has less resistance than the systemic circuit.
2. the RV pumps a smaller volume of blood than the LV.
3. the RV pumps blood out with a slower exit speed than the RV
4. the RV chamber has a smaller volume than the LV.

14.Through which valve does blood flow when it moves from the left atrium into the left ventricle?

1. the semilunar valve
2. the mitral valve
3. the tricuspid valve
4. the bicuspid valve

15.Which period of the heart cycle is completely occupied by the ventricles contracting?

1. atrial systole
2. atrial diastole
3. ventricular systole
4. ventricular diastole

16.Which statement below describes blood flow through the mitral valve?

1. blood flows from the right atrium into the right ventricle
2. blood flows from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery
3. blood flows from the left ventricle into the aorta
4. blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventricle

17.Which structure has the thickest wall?

1. the aorta
2. the inter-atrial septum
3. the left ventricle
4. the right ventricle

18.Which tissue is supplied with blood via the coronary arteries?

1. the lungs
2. the myocardium
3. the corana
4. the aorta

19.What is the innermost layer of the heart wall known as?

1. epicardium
2. pericardium
3. Visceral pericardium
4. endocardium

20.Which of the following is a difference between cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?

1. cardiac muscle is not striated (and skeletal muscle is).
2. cardiac muscle fibres are branched (and skeletal muscle fibres are not)
3. skeletal muscle is involuntary and is uni-nucleate (and cardiac muscle is neither)
4. skeletal muscle has intercalated discs (and cardiac muscle doesn’t).

21.Where is the mitral valve of the heart located? Between the

1. left atrium and left ventricl
2. left ventricle and the aorta
3. right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
4. right atrium and right ventricle

22.Choose the structure known as the pacemaker of the heart from the following

1. atrio-ventricular node
2. sino-atrial node
3. atrio-ventricular bundle
4. the bundle of His

23.Where is the aortic valve located?

1. between the right atrium and right ventricle
2. between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
3. between the left ventricle and the aorta
4. between the left atrium and left ventricle

24.By what name is the heart muscle known?

1. epicardium
2. myocardium
3. pericardium
4. endocardium

25. The heart receives its own oxygenated blood supply via the

1. coronary arteries
2. the pulmonary veins
3. the coronary sinus
4. the foramen ovale

26.Which name is NOT applied to the valve between the left ventricle and the left atrium?

1. atrioventricular valve
2. semi-lunar valve
3. the bicuspid valve
4. the mitral valve

27.Where does the pulmonary trunk deliver its blood to?

1. the left atrium
2. the right ventricle
3. the lungs
4. the left ventricle

28.The heart can be made to beat faster by which of the following?

1. sympathetic stimulation of the SA node
2. sympathetic stimulation of the AV node
3. parasympathetic stimulation of the SA node
4. parasympathetic stimulation of the AV node

29.What is the outermost layer of the heart wall known as?

1. epicardium
2. pericardium
3. Parietal membrane
4. endocardium

30.The valve between the atrium and the ventricle that pumps oxygenated blood is called:

1. the right atrioventricular valve
2. the semilunar valve
3. the mitral valve
4. the tricuspid valve

31.What is the name given to the remnant of the opening in the foetal heart that allowed the foetal lungs to be bypassed?

1. coronary sinus
2. foramen ovale
3. inter-atrial septum
4. fossa ovalis

32.The mitral valve of the heart is located between the

1. right atrium and right ventricle
2. left ventricle and the aorta
3. right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
4. left atrium and left ventricle

33.Complete the sentence correctly. The left ventricle pumps:

1. more blood than the right ventricle
2. blood at a lower pressure than the right ventricle
3. less blood than the right ventricle
4. blood at a higher pressure than the right ventricle

34.What is ventricular systole? It

1. refers to contraction of the ventricles
2. occurs at the same time as contraction of the atria
3. occurs while the bicuspid valve is open
4. refers to relaxation of the ventricles

35.Which is correct? In its passage through the heart, blood is pumped into the pulmonary trunk:

1. after leaving the left ventricle
2. after leaving the left atrium
3. after passing through the right AV valve
4. after passing through the left AV valve

36.Cardiac muscle cells differ from skeletal muscle cells in that

1. skeletal muscle cells are voluntary but cardiac muscle cells are not.
2. skeletal muscle cells are branched but cardiac muscle cells are not
3. cardiac muscle cells are multinucleate but skeletal muscle cells are not.
4. cardiac muscle cells are a syncytium while skeletal muscle does not

37.Which chamber of the heart has the thickest myocardium?

1. left ventricle
2. right ventricle
3. left atrium
4. right atrium

38.Why is the myocardium of the left ventricle thicker than that of the right ventricle?

1. The left ventricle has to pump a greater volume of blood than the right ventricle.
2. The resistance of the systemic circulation is greater than that of the pulmonary circulation
3. The left ventricle has to pump blood to the brain against gravity.
4. The right ventricle is assisted by the “respiratory pump”.

39. What supplies blood to the myocardium?

1. the coronary circulation.
2. the vena cavae.
3. the vasa recta.
4. the pulmonary circulation.

40.Which of the following heart structures are listed in the correct sequence of blood flow through them?

1. right atrium, bicuspid valve, pulmonary valve, left ventricle.
2. tricuspid valve, right ventricle, left atrium, mitral valve
3. pulmonary valve, left atrium, tricuspid valve, left ventricle.
4. right ventricle, left atrium, aortic valve, left ventricle.

41.The tricuspid valve separates which two structures?

1. right ventricle and pulmonary trunk
2. right ventricle and right atrium
3. left ventricle and aorta
4. left ventricle and left atrium

42.Why is the myocardium of the right ventricle thinner than that of the left ventricle?

1. the left ventricle has to pump a greater volume of blood than the right ventricle.
2. . it results from left ventricular hypertrophy due to increased peripheral resistance.
3. it pumps blood into the low resistance pulmonary circulation.
4. it pumps blood into the high resistance systemic circulation.

43.Which of the following events occur during late ventricular diastole?

1. the atria are relaxed, the ventricles are filling passively, the atrioventricular valves are open
2. the ventricles are starting to contract, the atrioventricular valves are closed, the semilunar valves are open
3. the atria contract, the ventricles are relaxed, the atrioventricular valves are open
4. the atria are relaxed, the ventricles are starting to relax, the atrioventricular valves are closed, the semilunar valves are closed.

44.What feature distinguishes pacemaker cardiac cells from other cardiac cells? Pacemaker cardiac cells:

1. require a stimulus from the vagus nerve in order to reach threshold; other cardiac cells do not.
2. reach threshold with much weaker stimuli than other cardiac cells
3. have gap junctions, while other cardiac cells do not
4. . do not require an external stimulus to reach threshold, while other cardiac cells do.

45. In a normal ECG trace, what does a QRS wave indicate?

1. depolarisation of the atria
2. repolarisation of the atria
3. depolarisation of the ventricles
4. repolarisation of the ventricles

46.What would be a possible consequence of the SA node failing to depolarise?

1. the entire heart would not contract
2. the heart rate will decrease
3. the ventricles would not contract
4. the heart rate will increase

47. By what means does an electrical signal travel from the atria to the ventricles? Via

1. gap junctions
2. purkinje fibres
3. intercalated discs
4. atrio-ventricular bundle

48.Which one of the following descriptions or statements about an electrocardiogram (ECG) is NOT correct?

1. It is a record of the voltage changes (as measured at the body surface) due to the depolarisation of the muscle cells of the heart as it beats.
2. The potentials measured by the ECG electrodes are combined in various ways to give 12 different ECGs.
3. The ECG consists of the electrical events that follow the depolarisation of ventricles (PQR section), the depolarisation of atria (the S section) and the repolarisation of the ventricles (the T section)
4. The value of the potential difference called “limb lead II” varies with time to produce the familiar ECG trace – a graph of voltage vs time

49.Which of the following does limb lead II of a typical electrocardiogram represent?

1. A graph of the variation of voltage produced by the heart against time.
2. The voltage at right arm (RA) plus the voltage at left leg (LL).
3. The electrical events that precede the contraction of the ventricles
4. The projection of the electric dipole vector of the heart on the line from left arm (LA) to right arm (RA).

50.Which of the following events occur during early ventricular systole?

1. the atria are relaxed, the ventricles are filling passively, the atrioventricular valves are open
2. the ventricles are starting to contract, the atrioventricular valves are closed, the semilunar valves are closed
3. the atria contract, the ventricles are relaxed, the atrioventricular valves are open
4. the atria are relaxed, the ventricles are starting to relax, the atrioventricular valves are opening, the semilunar valves are closing.

51.When listening to the “lub-dup” sound of the heart with a stethoscope, what is the cause of the “dup” sound?

1. The blood flowing through the open semilunar valves
2. The blood flowing through the open atrioventricular valves
3. The turbulent blood flow through closing atrioventricular valves
4. The turbulent blood flow through closing semilunar valve

52. What feature distinguishes pacemaker cardiac cells from other myocardial cells? Pacemaker cells:

1. require a stimulus from the vagus nerve in order to reach threshold, myocardial cells do not
2. reach threshold with much weaker stimuli than myocardial cells
3. have gap junctions, while myocardial cells do not
4. spontaneously generate action potentials, while myocardial cells do not.

53. What structure in the heart prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium?

1. The tricuspid valve
2. The bicuspid valve
3. The mitral valve
4. The foramen ovale

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